As a follow-on to my W&W post, the ENT brought up a very interesting point that I hadn't contemplated previously. I had assumed that hearing preservation surgical approach meant pretty good, useful hearing. He suggested otherwise, at least for someone like me who has very very good hearing in my non-AN ear. I only have mild hearing loss (not quite sure of the PTA - but is probably 25db or better) - I have a big fall-off at 6000hz (or maybe 4000hz) but otherwise hearing loss is mild. I have incredible hearing in the good ear - straight-lined across all levels at 0db (yeah me, guess I didn't listen to anything too loud when I was growing up).
So, the comment he had - that hearing preservation in the middle fossa or the retrosigmoid isn't exactly 'preserving' for me as my hearing is so good in the other ear. Any differential greater than 15db makes the hearing loss noticeable but a db differential of 30db, or worse 50db would be pretty much useless to me. Thus, if my right ear is 0db loss (now) and my left post-surgery with 'successful' hearing preservation gives me an approximate 50db/50% speech - am I really preserving anything functional?
As an example, I found the following extract from an article ... probably many many different articles with different rates, but I will gander somewhat similar theme.
RESULTS: In the group operated on by the middle fossa approach, the average preoperative pure-tone threshold average (PTA) was 23 dB with a word recognition score (WRS) of 79%, and the postoperative PTA averaged 49 dB with a mean WRS of 56%. In the group operated on by the retrosigmoid approach, the mean preoperative PTA was 16 dB with a WRS of 95% and a postoperative PTA value of 62 dB and WRS of 51% (hearing preservation rate of 47%).
Thus, in general terms, the average (again, who knows who will be average) post-op is closing in on the famous 50/50 rule (50db PTA average and 50 speech discrimination). Is that really hearing preservation?
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Now, my next topic of interest is the benefit derived from hearing aids if you were in the broad category of 50/50 rule on one side with excellent hearing on the other side. It also occurred to me now that impaired hearing (either because of W&W and the pretty much guaranteed loss of hearing or any surgical intervention ... GK research comes later) on one side with a serious differential may be better than NIL once I start to age. But, to be honest, I haven't got my head around the best scenario of hearing when I am in my 70/80/90s (given the chance, of course!)
Not quite sure I have written this out clearly. It makes sense to me - but would appreciate any wise words of the crowd.
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An article from 2000 - so likely rates have improved somewhat - but this is similar to what I have been told by the ENT
Here is a link
http://www.mdconsult.com/das/citation/body/116129929-4/jorg=journal&source=&sp=11444440&sid=0/N/11444440/1.html?issn=