Hello,
Back in 2005, I went for a hearing test as my hearing was getting pretty bad. I had suffered a loud blast into my ear and it was never the same after that. Due to the significant difference in hearing levels between my two ears, I was sent for an MRI. It came back negative.
Today I went for hearing test with a new audiologist. I took the copy of the letter from the ENT regarding the MRI. Anyway, my test was done and when we went into the office to go over the results, the first thing the audiologist said to me "if you hadn't told me you'd had an MRI, I would be concerned. Your audiogram is exactly like you would see with a tumour." At any rate, something to those words. He also asked if I had an older audiogram, which, unfortunately, I don't. He said that with a sound trauma to the ear, he wouldn't expect to see the hearing worsen to any significant amount over a couple of years. He also said that MRI's are pretty good to pick up anything.
My test showed virtually no hearing over 3000 Hz. He says my ear is now dead in this region and with a new hearing aid, he wouldn't even try to amplify this region because there's "nothing there anymore". The numbers from the test are below:
Frequency : left, right
0250: 10,40
0500: 10,40
0750: 10,50
1000: 10,55
1500: 10,65
2000: 15,75
3000: 20,100
4000: 20,120
6000: 20,n/a
8000: 25,120
There was no hearing at 6000 Hz in my right ear and he said it was dead in this range. The 4000 & 6000 Hz results were at the very bottom of the graph. At 6000 I only heard a "whoosh" which he said indicated adjacent areas in the ear were picking it up.
I don't remember those upper numbers being that low, but I'm only going from memory. I seem to recall that they were between 80 dB and 90 dB above 3000 Hz, but I could easily be mistaken.
Now, onto my question.
Is it possible that the MRI missed something? This was a straight MRI, with no contrasting agent used. Could it have been so small that it wasn't visible, but over the past 3 years it's grown in size? From the audiologists reaction this morning, and thinking that perhaps my upper frequency has really gone, I am wondering. Overall, I think everything is worse - I know that my low-frequency hearing wasn't quite that bad, but it wasn't perfect either.
Any thoughts about this? It could be a bad memory from what I'm thinking the audiogram said in 2005, or perhaps my hearing in the upper frequency ranges have gotten really bad.
Should I be concerned, going for another MRI, or just thinking it's likely nothing since the first MRI showed nothing.
Thanks!